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Lemma 1. For any r and s , r<s<r + ˀ ,
in the domain of ʳ ,
y
2sin s−r
2
|
ʳ ( s )
ʳ ( r )
|≥
.
ʳ ( s )=( x ( s ) ,y ( s ))
Proof. Assume, without loss of generality,
that r = 0 and that ʳ ( r ) is at the origin O
(i.e. ʳ (0) = (0 , 0)); the lemma is then equiva-
lent to
ʷ =( y ( s ) , −x ( s ))
ʳ ( ˄ )
ʳ ( ˄ )
2sin 2 (Fig. 2 ). We prove this
by lower-bounding the derivative of
|
ʳ ( s )
|≥
x
O
2 :
|
ʳ ( s )
|
ʳ (0)
Fig. 2. |Oʳ ( s ) |≥ 2sin s
2
, the slope
of ( s )isatmosttan s
2
.
( ( s ) | 2 ) =2 ʳ ( s ) · ʳ ( s )=2 s
0
ʳ ( ˄ ) · ʳ ( s ) =2 s
0
2 s
0
cos s˄ d˄
cos( s − ˄ ) =2sin s
cos s )=4sin 2 2 .
Hence
|
ʳ ( s )
|
2
2(1
sin( ʸ/ 2)
ʸ/ 2
Corollary 1. For al l i , 1
i<n ,
|
ʳ ( t i +1 )
ʳ ( t i )
|≥|
t i +1
t i |
.
sin(( t i +1 t i ) / 2)
( t i +1 −t i ) / 2
Proof. It suces to observe that, since 0
t i +1
t i
ʸ ,
sin( ʸ/ 2)
ʸ/ 2
.
Lemma 2. For any r and s , r<s<r + ˀ , in the domain of ʳ , the angle
between ʳ ( r ) and the ray ʳ ( r ) ʳ ( s ) is at most s−r
2
.
Proof. Assume again that r = 0 and that ʳ (0) = O ; also assume w.l.o.g.
that ʳ (0) is horizontal ( ʳ (0) = (1 , 0)). Let ʳ ( s )=( x ( s ) ,y ( s )), and let
k ( s )= y ( s ) /x ( s ) be the slope of the ray ( s ) (Fig. 2 , left). Then the lemma is
equivalent to k ( s )
tan 2 , which we will prove by showing that k
1
cos s
sin 2 s
=
2cos 2 ( s/ 2) = (tan 2 ) .
By definition, for any ˄<s the angle between ʳ ( ˄ )and ʳ ( s ) is at most
1
˄ ; in particular ʳ ( s )
s . It follows that x ( s )=( x ( s ) ,y ( s ))
(1 , 0) = ʳ ( s )
s
·
·
ʳ (0) = cos
s 0
cos s , and thus x ( s )
sin s . Next, consider the unit vector
ʷ =( y ( s ) ,
x ( s )), orthogonal to ʳ ( s ) (Fig. 2 ). Since the angle between ʳ ( ˄ )
and ʷ is at least ˀ/ 2
˄ ), it follows that ( x ( ˄ ) ,y ( ˄ ))
( s
·
ʷ
cos( ˀ/ 2
( s
˄ )),
or x ( ˄ ) y ( s )
y ( ˄ ) x ( s )
sin( s
˄ ). Integrating over ˄ from0to s ,weget
x ( s ) y ( s )
y ( s ) x ( s )
1
cos s . Combining this with x ( s )
sin s , we obtain
what we need: k =( y/x ) = y x x y
x 2
1
cos s
sin 2 s
.
Corollary 2. The angle between the ray ʳ ( t i− 1 ) ʳ ( t i ) and ʳ ( t i ) is at most sin 1
( min { d θ , | ʳ ( t i− 1 ) ʳ ( t i ) |}
2
)
Proof. By the lemma, the angle between the ray ʳ ( t i− 1 ) ʳ ( t i )and ʳ ( t i )isatmost
t i t i− 2 , which is always at most ʸ/ 2=sin 1 ( d 2 ). So, it suces to consider the
case where
t i −t i− 1
2
sin 1 ( ( t i− 1 ) ʳ ( t i ) |
2
|
ʳ ( t i− 1 ) ʳ ( t i )
|
<d ʸ . But in this case,
),
by Lemma 1 .
In summary, we have shown the following:
 
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