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F p n the equation
Proof. Since F is DO polynomial then it is PN if for any a
F ( x + a )
F ( x )
F ( a ) = 0 has only 0 as a solution. We have
Δ ( x )= F ( x + a ) − F ( x ) − F ( a )
= b p s +1 ( ax p s + a p s x )
b p k ( p s +1) ( a p k x p k + s + a p k + s x p k )
k− 1
c i ( a p i x p k + i + a p k + i x p i ) .
+
i =0
Any solution of the equation Δ ( x ) = 0 is also a solution of Δ ( x )+ Δ ( x ) p k
=0
Δ ( x ) p k
and Δ ( x )
= 0, that is, a solution of
k−
1
c i ( a p i x p k + i + a p k + i x p i )=0 ,
(1)
i =0
b p s +1 ( ax p s + a p s x )= b p k ( p s +1) ( a p k x p k + s + a p k + s x p k ) .
(2)
Since k− 1
i =0 c i x p i
is a permutation then (1) implies
ax p k =
a p k x.
(3)
Now we can substitute ax p k
a p k x and then obtain
in (2) by
b p s +1 ( ax p s + a p s x )=
b p k ( p s +1) ( a p k + s + p k −p s x p s + a p k + s + p k 1 x ) ,
that is,
( b p s +1 a + b p k ( p s +1) a p k + s + p k −p s ) x p s =
( b p s +1 a p s + b p k ( p s +1) a p k + s + p k 1 ) x,
and since a, b
=0thenfor x
=0
b p s +1 a p s + b p k ( p s +1) a p k + s + p k 1
b p s +1 a + b p k ( p s +1) a p k + s + p k −p s
x p s 1 =
a p s 1 ,
=
(4)
when
b ( p k 1)( p s +1) a p k + s + p k −p s 1
=
1 .
(5)
Now assume that for some nonzero a inequality (5) is wrong, that is,
( ba ) ( p k
1)( p s +1) =
1 .
1isapowerof( p k
1)( p s
Then
+ 1) which is in contradiction with
=gcd p s +1 , ( p k +1) / 2 since
gcd( p s +1 ,p k +1)
1isapowerof( p n
1) / 2.
From (3) and (4) we get
y p k 1 = y p s 1 =
1 ,
(6)
where y = x/a .Since n =2 k then the first equality in (6) implies y p k + s
= y ,
that is, y
F p k + s .Thus,ifgcd( k + s, 2 k )=gcd( k + s, k )then y
F p gcd( k + s,k )
which contradicts the second equality in (6), that is, y p k
1
=1 = 1, for any
y = 0. Therefore, the only solution of Δ ( x )=0is x =0.
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