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Claim 12. [ w∈ dom( t ) ( t ( w )
t∈ dom( y ) ( y ( t )
w = t
))] =1 .
Proof. It is sucient to prove that
( t ( w )
( y ( t )
w = t
)) = 0 .
w∈ dom( t )
t∈ dom( y )
Assume for some w
dom( t ), t ( w )
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
. If possible let there exist t
dom( y ) such that both y ( t ) ,
w = t
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
. By our assumption y ( t )
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
implies t is ʲ -like for some ʲ
ʱ .Since
w = t
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
by Theorem 9 we have
w is ʲ -like. Again since t is ʳ like and t ( w )
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
therefore ʲ
ʳ which
contradicts the minimality of ʳ as y ( t )
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
. Hence the claim is proved.
Therefore
z ( z
y
z
y =
)
1 / 2
1= 1 / 2 . This leads to the fact that
V (PS 3 ) ,if
for any y
y
u
∧¬
( y =
)
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
then
z ( z
y
z
y =
)
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
; i.e.,
y ( y
u
∧¬
( y =
)
→∃
z ( z
y
z
y =
))
=1 .
Hence we can conclude V (PS 3 )
Combining ( i )and( iii ) of lemma 11 the following theorem can be derived.
|
=WO ( u ).
Theorem 13. Let ʱ ∈ ORD and u be an ʱ-like element in V (PS 3 ) .Then
V (PS 3 )
| =ORD( u ) .
Theorem 13 shows any ʱ -like element satisfies the classical definition of ordinal
number. It is proved in [5] that the general Comprehension axiom scheme is not
valid in V (PS 3 ) . On the other hand it is a theorem of the paraconsistent set theory
considered in [12]. As a consequence the collection of all ordinals becomes a set in
that model. This fact leads us to the important question, whether the collection
of elements which make the first order formula ORD( x ) valid is a set in V (PS 3 ) .
The following theorem assures the answer is negative.
Theorem 14. There is no set of all ordinals:
V (PS 3 )
O
x (ORD( x )
x
O ) .
V (PS 3 ) be arbitrarily chosen. Then by definition, dom( O )isa
set in V . By Theorem 9, if ʱ
Proof. Let O
= ʲ for any ʱ, ʲ
ORD then for any ʱ -like u
and ʲ -like v , V (PS 3 )
u = v . Hence u and v are not equal as a set in V .We
conclude that if for each ʱ
ORD there exists an ʱ -like u in dom( O )then
dom( O ) cannot be a set in V as the collection of all ordinals is not a set in V .
Hence there exists an ʱ
ORD such that there is no ʱ -like element in dom( O ).
Let u be an ʱ -like element. Then by Theorem 13,
ORD( u )
∈{
1 , 1 / 2
}
but
=
x∈ dom( O )
u
O
( O ( x )
x = u
)=0 .
 
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